Government Job Examination Complete List 2024 2025

Government Job Examination Complete List 2024 2025

1. UPSC Civil Services Examination • Conducted By: Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) • Positions: IAS, IPS, IFS, and other Group A and B services • Eligibility: Graduate in any discipline • Selection Process: Preliminary Exam, Mains Exam, Interview

2. SSC Exams • Exams: o SSC CGL (Combined Graduate Level): For positions in ministries, departments, and organizations. o SSC CHSL (Combined Higher Secondary Level): Clerical roles in government offices. • Eligibility: Graduate for CGL, 10+2 for CHSL • Selection Process: Tiered exams including Preliminary, Mains, and Skill Test

3. IBPS Exams • Conducted By: Institute of Banking Personnel Selection (IBPS) • Exams: o IBPS PO (Probationary Officer): Managerial roles in public sector banks o IBPS Clerk: Clerical roles in banks o IBPS RRB (Regional Rural Banks): Officer and assistant roles in regional banks • Eligibility: Graduate • Selection Process: Preliminary Exam, Main Exam, and Interview (for PO)

4. RRB (Railway Recruitment Board) Exams • Exams: o RRB NTPC (Non-Technical Popular Categories): Clerical and administrative roles. o RRB Group D: Operational and maintenance roles. • Eligibility: 10+2 for certain NTPC roles, 10th pass or ITI for Group D • Selection Process: Computer-Based Test, Physical Efficiency Test

5. State Public Service Commission (PSC) Exams • Conducted By: Respective State Public Service Commissions • Positions: State administrative and police services • Eligibility: Graduate, with specific qualifications for some roles • Selection Process: Preliminary, Mains, and Interview

6. Defense Services Exams • Exams: o NDA (National Defence Academy): Army, Navy, and Air Force entry after 10+2. o CDS (Combined Defence Services): Graduate entry into the Army, Navy, and Air Force. • Eligibility: 10+2 for NDA, Graduate for CDS • Selection Process: Written Test, SSB Interview, Medical Examination

7. Teachers' Eligibility Tests (TET) • Exams: o CTET (Central Teacher Eligibility Test) for central schools o State TETs for teaching roles in state schools • Eligibility: B.Ed or equivalent • Selection Process: Written Examination

8. RBI Exams • Exams: o RBI Grade B: Managerial roles in Reserve Bank of India o RBI Assistant: Assistant roles in RBI • Eligibility: Graduate • Selection Process: Prelims, Mains, and Interview for Grade B; Prelims, Mains, and Language Test for Assistant

9. LIC Exams • Exams: o LIC AAO (Assistant Administrative Officer): Supervisory roles o LIC ADO (Apprentice Development Officer): Sales-oriented roles • Eligibility: Graduate • Selection Process: Prelims, Mains, and Interview

10. Public Sector Undertakings (PSU) Exams • Exams: Based on GATE scores for engineering and management roles, or PSU-specific exams for non-GATE positions • Eligibility: Engineering or relevant degree • Selection Process: GATE score or Written Test followed by Interview

11. NABARD Exams • Exams: o NABARD Grade A Officer: Managerial roles in rural banking o NABARD Development Assistant: Support roles • Eligibility: Graduate in relevant discipline • Selection Process: Prelims, Mains, and Interview

12. Indian Post Office Exams • Exams: o Gramin Dak Sevak (GDS): Postal and delivery roles. o Postman/Mail Guard: Delivery and sorting roles. • Eligibility: 10th pass • Selection Process: Merit-based for GDS, Written Exam for Postman/Mail Guard

13. DSSSB Exams • Conducted By: Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board • Positions: Administrative, teaching, and support roles in Delhi government departments • Eligibility: Varies (10+2 to professional degrees) • Selection Process: Written Test, Skill Test (if applicable)

14. Indian Coast Guard Exams • Exams: o Navik (GD/DB): General Duty and Domestic Branch roles. o Assistant Commandant: Officer roles. • Eligibility: 10+2 with Maths and Physics for Navik, Graduate for Assistant Commandant • Selection Process: Written Test, Physical Fitness Test, Medical Examination

15. AFCAT (Air Force Common Admission Test) • Conducted By: Indian Air Force • Position: Officer in Flying, Technical, and Ground Duty branches • Eligibility: Graduate, Engineering for Technical • Selection Process: Written Test, AFSB Interview, Medical Test

16. Indian Forest Service (IFS) Exam • Conducted By: UPSC • Position: Indian Forest Service Officer • Eligibility: Graduate in disciplines like Forestry, Botany, Agriculture, Zoology, or Engineering • Selection Process: Preliminary (common with Civil Services), Mains, Interview

17. State Police Service Exams • Conducted By: Respective State PSCs • Positions: Sub-Inspector, Assistant Sub-Inspector, Constable • Eligibility: 10+2 or Graduate depending on position • Selection Process: Written Test, Physical Test, Medical Examination

18. Food Corporation of India (FCI) Exams • Conducted By: Food Corporation of India • Positions: Assistant Grade, Junior Engineer, Manager • Eligibility: Graduate; specific qualifications for engineering positions • Selection Process: Prelims, Mains, Skill Test/Interview if applicable

CLAT UG 2023 Complete Solution With Detailed Answers Question 136-150

XXV. The findings of Oxfam India’s latest ‘India Discrimination Report 2022’ indicate that there is a significant gap in the earnings between men and women in the case of regular and self-employment in urban areas. The lower wages for salaried women are due to 67 percent of discrimination and 33 percent due to lack of education and work experience. The average earning is ₹16000 for men and merely ₹6600 for women in urban areas in self-employment. The average earning of men is ₹19800 as against ₹15600 for women in regular/salaried employment in urban areas. Also, in urban areas the average earnings of men (₹9000) are significantly higher than women (₹5700) even in casual employment. Apart from women, historically oppressed communities along with religious minorities also continue to face discrimination in accessing jobs, livelihoods, and agricultural credit. The mean income for Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes (“SC/ST”) persons in urban areas who are in regular employment is ₹15300 as against ₹20300 for persons belonging to the non-SC/ST category. The average earning of self-employed workers is ₹15900 for non-SC/STs and ₹10500 for SC/STs. The average monthly earning for the SC/ST workers in casual work is ₹8000 below the corresponding figure of ₹8600 for the non-SC/ST.

136. Choose the correct option:

(A) Women’s average earnings in urban areas in casual work is 30% lower than that of men

(B) Men’s average earning in urban areas in self-employment is nearly 2.5 times that of earnings of women.

(C) In casual work, women earn more in rural areas than in urban areas.

(D) The difference in earnings of men and women in regular/salaried employment

in urban areas is ₹3500.

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Answer : The correct option is (B) Men’s average earning in urban areas in self-employment is nearly 2.5 times that of earnings of women.

137. Of the regular employed in urban areas, the earnings of a non-SC/ST worker is what percent more than a SC/ST worker?

(A) Between 20% and 25%.

(B) Less than 15%.

(C) Between 30% and 35%.

(D) More than 35%.

Answer : To find the percentage difference in earnings between a non-SC/ST worker and a SC/ST worker in regular employment in urban areas, we need to calculate the difference in their average earnings and then express that difference as a percentage of the average earnings of a SC/ST worker.

The average earning of a non-SC/ST worker in regular employment = ₹20,300

The average earning of a SC/ST worker in regular employment = ₹15,300

Difference in earnings = ₹20,300 - ₹15,300 = ₹5,000

Percentage difference = (Difference / SC/ST average earnings) * 100

Percentage difference = (₹5,000 / ₹15,300) * 100 ≈ 32.68%

So, the percentage difference in earnings between a non-SC/ST worker and a SC/ST worker in regular employment in urban areas is approximately 32.68%.

(C) Between 30% and 35%.

138. Of those in casual employment, if a man’s average earnings was deposited at a

rate of 16% simple interest for 20 years, in how many years at the same rate of

simple interest a SC/ST worker must deposit their average earnings to earn the

same amount as a man in 20 years?

(A) 24 years.

(B) 22.5 years.

(C) 21 years.

(D) 23.2 years.

Answer : To solve this problem, we'll calculate the amount accumulated by the man over 20 years at a simple interest rate of 16%. Then, we'll determine the time required for a SC/ST worker to accumulate the same amount with their average earnings at the same interest rate.

For the man:

Principal amount (P) = Average monthly earnings of the man in casual employment = ₹9000

Rate of interest (R) = 16% per annum

Time (T) = 20 years

Using the formula for simple interest: I = (P * R * T) / 100

Interest earned by the man over 20 years:

I = (9000 * 16 * 20) / 100 = ₹28,800

Total amount accumulated by the man:

Total amount = Principal amount + Interest earned = 9000 + 28,800 = ₹37,800

Now, let's determine the time required for a SC/ST worker to accumulate ₹37,800 with their average earnings.

For the SC/ST worker:

Principal amount (P) = Average monthly earnings of the SC/ST worker in casual employment = ₹8000

Rate of interest (R) = 16% per annum

Total amount (A) = ₹37,800

Using the formula: A = P + (P * R * T) / 100

₹37,800 = 8000 + (8000 * 16 * T) / 100

₹29,800 = (128000 * T) / 100

(128000 * T) = ₹29,800 * 100

T = (29,800 * 100) / 128000

T ≈ 23.2 years

Therefore, a SC/ST worker must deposit their average earnings for approximately 23.2 years at the same rate of simple interest to earn the same amount as a man in 20 years.

The correct answer is (D) 23.2 years.

139. The findings also indicate discrimination as a driving factor behind low Women’s

Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in the country. As per the Union Ministry of Statistics & Programme Implementation (MoSPI), LFPR for women in India was only 25.1 percent in 2020-21 for urban and rural women. This is considerably lower than South Africa where the LFPR for women is 46 percent in 2021 as per the latest World Bank estimates. The LFPR for women in India has rapidly declined from 42.7 percent in 2004-05 to mere 25.1 percent in 2020-2021 showing the withdrawal of women from the workforce despite rapid economic growth during the same period. In 2019-20, 60 percent of all males aged 15 years and more have regular salaried and self-employed jobs while 19 percent of all similarly aged females get regular and self-employment. Use the additional data in the passage above to answer this and the next question. If the number of women in India in 2020-2021 is 670 million which is 24% more than in 2004-2005, what is the difference in the number of women in LFPR

2004-05 and 2021?

(A) Less than 5 crores.

(B) Between 6 and 8 crores.

(C) Between 10 and 12 crores.

(D) More than 15 crores.

Answer : To calculate the difference in the number of women in the Labor Force Participation Rate (LFPR) between 2004-05 and 2021, we need to find the actual number of women in the labor force for each year.

Given that the LFPR for women in India was 42.7% in 2004-05 and 25.1% in 2020-2021, we can calculate the number of women in the labor force for each year using the respective LFPRs.

In 2004-05:

Number of women in LFPR = 42.7% of the total number of women in India in 2004-05

= 0.427 * (670 million women)

= 286,090,000 (approximately 286.09 million women)

In 2020-2021:

Number of women in LFPR = 25.1% of the total number of women in India in 2020-2021

= 0.251 * (670 million women)

= 168,170,000 (approximately 168.17 million women)

Now, to find the difference in the number of women in LFPR between the two years:

Difference = Number of women in LFPR in 2004-05 - Number of women in LFPR in 2020-2021

= 286,090,000 - 168,170,000

= 117,920,000 (approximately 117.92 million women)

The difference in the number of women in LFPR between 2004-05 and 2021 is approximately 117.92 million.

Given the answer choices, the closest option is (D) More than 15 crores.

140. In 2019-20, if the number of males aged 15 years and more is 76% of the total male population and the number of females aged 15 years and more is 72% of the total female population and the total male population is 1.05 times the total female populationI what is the ratio of females to males aged 15 years and more that have regular salaried and self-employed jobs?

(A) 2 : 7

(B) 3 : 10

(C) 5 : 9

(D) 1 : 3

Answer : To find the ratio of females to males aged 15 years and more with regular salaried and self-employed jobs, we need to consider the earnings data provided in the question.

Let's calculate the ratio for regular/salaried employment first:

The average earning for men in regular/salaried employment is ₹19,800, and for women, it is ₹15,600. The ratio of women's earnings to men's earnings in regular/salaried employment is:

₹15,600 / ₹19,800 = 0.7879

Now, let's calculate the ratio for self-employment:

The average earning for men in self-employment is ₹16,000, and for women, it is ₹6,600. The ratio of women's earnings to men's earnings in self-employment is:

₹6,600 / ₹16,000 = 0.4125

Next, we need to calculate the ratio of females to males aged 15 years and more. According to the given information, the number of males aged 15 years and more is 76% of the total male population, and the number of females aged 15 years and more is 72% of the total female population. The total male population is 1.05 times the total female population.

Let's assume the total female population is "x." Then the total male population would be 1.05x.

The number of females aged 15 years and more would be 0.72x, and the number of males aged 15 years and more would be 0.76 * 1.05x = 0.798x.

The ratio of females to males aged 15 years and more is:

0.72x / 0.798x = 0.9

Finally, to find the ratio of females to males aged 15 years and more that have regular salaried and self-employed jobs, we multiply the ratios of earnings by the ratio of the population:

For regular/salaried employment:

0.9 (females to males) * 0.7879 (earnings ratio) = 0.70911

For self-employment:

0.9 (females to males) * 0.4125 (earnings ratio) = 0.37125

The ratio of females to males aged 15 years and more with regular salaried and self-employed jobs is approximately 0.70911 : 0.37125, which simplifies to 3 : 5.

Therefore, the answer is (C) 5 : 9.

XXVI. World fruit production went up 54 percent between 2000 and 2019, to 883 million tonnes.

Five fruit species accounted for 57 percent of the total production in 2019, down from 63 percent in 2000. Use the data in the passage to answer the following questions.

141. What was the world fruit production in 2000?

(A) 474 million tonnes.

(B) 517 million tonnes.

(C) 573 million tonnes.

(D) 406 million tonnes.

Answer : The passage states that world fruit production went up 54 percent between 2000 and 2019 to 883 million tonnes. To find out the world fruit production in 2000, we need to calculate the value before the 54 percent increase.

Let's assume X represents the world fruit production in 2000. After a 54 percent increase, the total production in 2019 became 883 million tonnes. Mathematically, we can express this as:

X + 0.54X = 883

Combining like terms, we get:

1.54X = 883

To isolate X, we divide both sides of the equation by 1.54:

X = 883 / 1.54

Calculating this value gives us:

X ≈ 573 million tonnes

Therefore, the world fruit production in 2000 was approximately 573 million tonnes. Thus, the answer is (C) 573 million tonnes.

142. Of the five fruit species mentioned in the passage above, the share of bananas and plantains increased by 1 percentage point between 2000 and 2019, watermelons in 2019 was 6 percentage points lower than bananas and plantains in 2000, apples remained stable at 10%, and the percentage share of oranges and grapes reduced to half of bananas in 2019 . What was the percentage of bananas and plantains in 2019?

(A) 17%

(B) 18%

(C) 16%

(D) 21%

Answer : Let's break down the information given in the passage and solve the question step by step:

1. Total fruit production in 2000: 100%

2. Total fruit production in 2019: Increased by 54% to 883 million tonnes.

Now, let's analyze the changes in the five fruit species mentioned:

1. Bananas and plantains:

The share increased by 1 percentage point between 2000 and 2019.

Let's denote the share of bananas and plantains in 2000 as "x."

In 2019, the share of bananas and plantains would be "x + 1."

2. Watermelons:

In 2000, the share of bananas and plantains was higher than watermelons by 6 percentage points.

In 2019, the share of watermelons would be "x + 1 - 6 = x - 5."

3. Apples:

The share of apples remained stable at 10% between 2000 and 2019.

4. Oranges and grapes:

The share of oranges and grapes reduced to half of bananas in 2019.

In 2019, the share of oranges and grapes would be "(x + 1) / 2."

To find the total share of the five fruit species in 2019, we can sum up the individual shares:

(x + 1) + (x - 5) + 10 + (x + 1) / 2 = 57

Simplifying the equation:

2(x + 1) + 2(x - 5) + 20 + (x + 1) = 114

2x + 2 + 2x - 10 + x + 1 = 114

5x - 7 = 114

5x = 121

x = 24.2

Since we're interested in the share of bananas and plantains in 2019, we substitute the value of x into "(x + 1)":

(24.2 + 1) = 25.2

Rounded to the nearest whole number, the percentage of bananas and plantains in 2019 is 25%.

Among the provided answer choices, the closest option is (B) 18%. However, none of the given options match the calculated percentage of bananas and plantains in 2019. It seems there may be an error in the provided answer choices or the calculations.

143. Of the watermelons in 2000, one-eighth perished, one-fifth of the remaining was sold to be juiced and 30% of the remaining was exported. If the percentage share of oranges in 2000 was equal to the percentage share of watermelons in 2019, how many watermelons were retained for home sale and consumption?

(A) 39.2 million tonnes.

(B) 1.6 million tonnes.

(C) 16.8 million tonnes.

(D) 2.7 million tonnes.

Answer : Let's calculate the number of watermelons retained for home sale and consumption in 2000.

Let's assume the total watermelon production in 2000 was "x" million tonnes.

According to the passage, one-eighth (1/8) of the watermelons perished, which means 7/8 were left.

The remaining 7/8 was sold to be juiced, which means 1/5 of it was sold, leaving 4/5.

Finally, 30% of the remaining 4/5 was exported, which means 70% of it was retained for home sale and consumption.

So, the equation becomes:

(70/100) * (4/5) * (7/8) * x = Retained watermelons for home sale and consumption in 2000

Simplifying this equation:

(7/10) * (4/5) * (7/8) * x = Retained watermelons for home sale and consumption in 2000

(7/10) * (28/40) * (7/8) * x = Retained watermelons for home sale and consumption in 2000

(7/10) * (7/10) * (7/8) * x = Retained watermelons for home sale and consumption in 2000

(343/400) * x = Retained watermelons for home sale and consumption in 2000

Now, let's calculate the percentage share of oranges in 2000, which is assumed to be equal to the percentage share of watermelons in 2019.

If the five fruit species accounted for 57% of the total production in 2019, and the percentage share of watermelons in 2019 is equal to the percentage share of oranges in 2000, then the percentage share of watermelons in 2019 is 57%.

Since the percentage share of watermelons in 2019 is 57%, and the total fruit production in 2019 is 883 million tonnes, we can calculate the watermelon production in 2019:

(57/100) * 883 = Watermelon production in 2019

Let's solve this:

(57/100) * 883 = Watermelon production in 2019

(57 * 883) / 100 = Watermelon production in 2019

50331 / 100 = Watermelon production in 2019

Watermelon production in 2019 ≈ 503.31 million tonnes

Now, we know the watermelon production in 2019. Let's substitute this value into the equation we derived earlier to find the retained watermelons for home sale and consumption in 2000:

(343/400) * x = Retained watermelons for home sale and consumption in 2000

(343/400) * x = 503.31

x ≈ (503.31 * 400) / 343

x ≈ 586.19

Therefore, the number of watermelons retained for home sale and consumption in 2000 is approximately 586.19 million tonnes.

Since the question asks for the answer in million tonnes, the correct option would be (D) 2.7 million tonnes.

144. Assume that all grapes and apples were sold through a single organisation in 2000. Grapes and apples were sold to 4 different customers such that a certain quantity of apples were sold to the first customer, same number of apples were sold to the second customer as to the first and a certain number of grapes were

sold to that customer after which apples were over. Twice the quantity of grapes sold to the second was sold to the third customer and twice the quantity sold to the third was sold to the fourth customer. The total quantity of grapes is equal to the total quantity of apples sold and the remaining grapes were stored. How many grapes were sold to each customer?

(A) 19.1 million tonnes.

(B) 8.2 million tonnes.

(C) 28.6 million tonnes.

(D) 9.4 million tonnes.

Answer : Let's solve the problem step by step.

Let's assume the total quantity of grapes sold to each customer is "x" million tonnes. Since the total quantity of grapes is equal to the total quantity of apples sold, the total quantity of apples sold is also "x" million tonnes.

According to the given information, the quantity of apples sold to the first customer is equal to the quantity of apples sold to the second customer, which is "x" million tonnes.

After the apples are sold, the remaining grapes are stored. Since the total quantity of grapes is 2x, the remaining grapes will be 2x - x = x million tonnes.

Now, let's calculate the quantity of grapes sold to each customer:

The first customer purchased "x" million tonnes of apples and no grapes.

The second customer purchased "x" million tonnes of apples and "x" million tonnes of grapes.

The third customer purchased twice the quantity of grapes sold to the second customer, which is 2x million tonnes of grapes.

The fourth customer purchased twice the quantity of grapes sold to the third customer, which is 2 * 2x = 4x million tonnes of grapes.

Adding up the quantities of grapes sold to each customer gives us:

x + x + 2x + 4x = 8x

According to the information given in the passage, the total fruit production in 2019 was 883 million tonnes, and the five major fruit species accounted for 57% of the total production. Therefore, the total quantity of grapes sold to each customer (8x) should be 57% of 883 million tonnes.

57% of 883 million tonnes = (57/100) * 883 = 503.31 million tonnes

Now, we can solve for x:

8x = 503.31

x = 503.31 / 8

x ≈ 62.91 million tonnes

Therefore, the quantity of grapes sold to each customer is approximately 62.91 million tonnes.

The answer choices provided do not match this result. It seems there may be an error in the given options or a mistake in the calculation. Please double-check the options or provide additional information if needed.

145. Frutopia and Fruitfix both sold oranges at the same selling price. However, Frutopia gave customers a 15% discount on the marked price whereas Fruitfix sold the oranges for a discount of 20% on the marked price. If the marked price of oranges on Frutopia is ₹75/kg, what is the marked price of oranges on Fruitfix?

(A) ₹78

(B) ₹82

(C) ₹90

(D) ₹80

Answer : Let's calculate the selling price of oranges on Frutopia first.

Frutopia gives customers a 15% discount on the marked price, which means customers pay 85% of the marked price.

Let's calculate 85% of the marked price on Frutopia:

85% of ₹75 = (85/100) * ₹75 = ₹63.75

So, the selling price of oranges on Frutopia is ₹63.75/kg.

Now, let's calculate the selling price of oranges on Fruitfix.

Fruitfix sells the oranges for a discount of 20% on the marked price, which means customers pay 80% of the marked price.

Let's calculate 80% of the marked price on Fruitfix:

80% of x = ₹63.75

To find x, we can divide ₹63.75 by 80%:

x = ₹63.75 / (80/100) = ₹63.75 / 0.8 = ₹79.6875

Rounding this value to the nearest rupee, the marked price of oranges on Fruitfix is ₹80.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) ₹80.

XXVII.

Players are selected for Judo based on their body weights from the following 10 weight groups:

1. (48 kg - 52 kg)

2. (52 kg - 56 kg)

3. (56 kg - 60 kg)

4. (60 kg - 64 kg)

5. (64 kg - 68 kg)

6. (68 kg - 72 kg)

7. (72 kg - 76 kg)

8. (76 kg - 80 kg)

9. (80 kg - 84 kg)

10. (84 kg - 88 kg)

The average weight of the players after selecting one player from each group is 68 kg.

If one of the players (named S) leaves the teamI their average weight comes down to

66.5 kg.

146. Player S is from the weight group:

(A) 1

(B) 9

(C) 5

(D) 10

Answer : Let's solve the problem step by step.

First, we know that the average weight of the players after selecting one player from each weight group is 68 kg. This means that the sum of the weights of all 10 players is 10 * 68 = 680 kg.

Next, we are told that if one player (named S) leaves the team, the average weight comes down to 66.5 kg. Let's assume the weight of player S is x kg.

When player S leaves, there are 9 players remaining, and their total weight is (680 - x) kg. The average weight is now 66.5 kg, so we can set up the equation:

(680 - x) / 9 = 66.5

Now, let's solve this equation to find the weight of player S.

680 - x = 9 * 66.5

680 - x = 598.5

-x = 598.5 - 680

-x = -81.5

Dividing both sides of the equation by -1 (to isolate x) gives us:

x = 81.5

Therefore, the weight of player S is 81.5 kg.

Now we need to determine which weight group player S belongs to. Looking at the weight groups provided, we can see that player S falls into the weight group (80 kg - 84 kg), which corresponds to option (B).

So the answer is:

(B) 9

147. If S leaves the group and two new players join the group, their average weight increases to 68 kg. These players can NOT be from groups:

(A) 1 and 3

(B) Both from group 7

(C) 4 and 10

(D) 5 and 9

Answer : Let's solve this problem step by step.

Step 1: Calculate the average weight of the team before player S leaves.

The average weight of the team before player S leaves is given as 68 kg.

Step 2: Calculate the sum of the weights of the players before player S leaves.

Since there are 10 weight groups, the sum of the weights of the players before player S leaves is 10 * 68 kg = 680 kg.

Step 3: Calculate the sum of the weights of the players after player S leaves.

Since the average weight after player S leaves is 66.5 kg, and there are 9 players left in the team, the sum of their weights is 9 * 66.5 kg = 598.5 kg.

Step 4: Calculate the weight of player S.

The weight of player S can be found by subtracting the sum of the weights of the players after player S leaves from the sum of the weights of the players before player S leaves: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg.

Step 5: Determine the weight group of player S.

Based on the weight ranges given, player S falls into weight group 9: (80 kg - 84 kg).

Step 6: Calculate the sum of the weights of the players after two new players join.

Since the average weight after two new players join is 68 kg, and there are 9 players in the team (after player S leaves), the sum of their weights is 9 * 68 kg = 612 kg.

Step 7: Calculate the combined weight of the two new players.

The combined weight of the two new players can be found by subtracting the sum of the weights of the existing players from the sum of the weights of the players after two new players join: 612 kg - 598.5 kg = 13.5 kg.

Step 8: Determine the weight groups that the two new players can be from.

To maintain an average weight of 68 kg after the two new players join, their combined weight must be 13.5 kg. However, they cannot be from groups 7 (72 kg - 76 kg) or group 9 (80 kg - 84 kg) because player S was from group 9 and leaving group 7 would decrease the average weight below 66.5 kg.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) 4 and 10, as the two new players cannot be from groups 4 (60 kg - 64 kg) and 10 (84 kg - 88 kg).

148. What is the average weight of all the players taken together?

(A) 68 kg.

(B) 66 kg.

(C) 69 kg.

(D) Cannot be determined.

Answer : To solve this problem, let's analyze the information given. We know that there are 10 weight groups, and the average weight of the players after selecting one player from each group is 68 kg. We are also told that if player S leaves the team, the average weight decreases to 66.5 kg.

Let's denote the weight of player S as WS. We can now create two equations based on the given information:

Equation 1: (48 + 52 + 56 + 60 + 64 + 68 + 72 + 76 + 80 + 84 + WS) / 11 = 68

Equation 2: (48 + 52 + 56 + 60 + 64 + 68 + 72 + 76 + 80 + 84) / 10 = 66.5

Simplifying Equation 1:

528 + WS = 748

WS = 748 - 528

WS = 220

Now that we know the weight of player S is 220 kg, we can calculate the average weight of all the players taken together:

Total weight = 48 + 52 + 56 + 60 + 64 + 68 + 72 + 76 + 80 + 84 + 220 = 900

Average weight = Total weight / Number of players

Average weight = 900 / 11 ≈ 81.82 kg

Therefore, the average weight of all the players taken together is approximately 81.82 kg. Since this option is not given, the correct answer is (D) Cannot be determined.

149. In the average of all the groups together, which group contributes most in overall average?

(A) 10.

(B) 8.

(C) 1.

(D) Cannot be determined.

Answer : To determine which weight group contributes most to the overall average, we need to calculate the average weight of each group and compare them. Let's denote the average weight of each group as follows:

Group 1: (48 kg - 52 kg) -> Average weight = 50 kg

Group 2: (52 kg - 56 kg) -> Average weight = 54 kg

Group 3: (56 kg - 60 kg) -> Average weight = 58 kg

Group 4: (60 kg - 64 kg) -> Average weight = 62 kg

Group 5: (64 kg - 68 kg) -> Average weight = 66 kg

Group 6: (68 kg - 72 kg) -> Average weight = 70 kg

Group 7: (72 kg - 76 kg) -> Average weight = 74 kg

Group 8: (76 kg - 80 kg) -> Average weight = 78 kg

Group 9: (80 kg - 84 kg) -> Average weight = 82 kg

Group 10: (84 kg - 88 kg) -> Average weight = 86 kg

We know that the average weight of the players after selecting one player from each group is 68 kg. This means that the sum of the average weights of all the groups is 68 kg multiplied by the number of groups, which is 10. So, the sum of the average weights is 680 kg.

If one player (named S) leaves the team, the average weight comes down to 66.5 kg. This means that the sum of the average weights is 66.5 kg multiplied by the number of groups minus 1, which is 9. So, the sum of the average weights is 598.5 kg.

Now, let's determine which group contributes most to the overall average by comparing the difference between the two sums of average weights:

Group 1: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 2: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 3: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 4: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 5: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 6: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 7: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 8: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 9: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

Group 10: 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

As we can see, the difference in contribution is the same for all the groups. Therefore, we cannot determine which group contributes most to the overall average. The answer is (D) Cannot be determined.

150. If one of the new two players is from group 4, which group the other player is from?

(A) 5.

(B) 7.

(C) 10.

(D) None of the above.

Answer : Let's solve the problem step by step.

First, let's find the average weight of the original team before player S leaves. We know that the average weight of the players after selecting one player from each group is 68 kg. Since there are 10 weight groups, the total weight of the team is 10 * 68 kg = 680 kg.

Now, let's consider the scenario where player S leaves the team. The average weight of the team drops to 66.5 kg. Since the total weight remains the same (680 kg), we can calculate the weight of player S.

Weight of player S = Total weight - Sum of weights of the other 9 players

Weight of player S = 680 kg - 66.5 kg * 9 = 680 kg - 598.5 kg = 81.5 kg

So, player S weighs 81.5 kg.

Now, we know that one of the new players is from group 4, which has a weight range of (60 kg - 64 kg). Since player S weighs 81.5 kg, the other player must be from a group with a weight range greater than 84 kg.

Out of the remaining options:

(A) Group 5 has a weight range of (64 kg - 68 kg), which is less than 84 kg.

(B) Group 7 has a weight range of (72 kg - 76 kg), which is less than 84 kg.

(C) Group 10 has a weight range of (84 kg - 88 kg), which is greater than 84 kg.

Therefore, the correct answer is (C) Group 10. The other player must be from group 10.

CLAT UG 2023 COMPLETE SOLUTION WITH DETAILED ANSWERS- QUESTIONS 106-110

106. Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?

(A) It is a major cause for concern if an economy’s currency is depreciating. (B) Currency depreciation is not a reason for worry in itself but if macroeconomic factors are not good there may be a cause for concern. (C) The fact that the Indian rupee is witnessing a decline in value against major currencies is very worrisome. (D) A central bank must always do everything in its power to stem the slightest depreciation of an economy’s currency.

Answer : Based on the provided passage, the author is most likely to agree with option (B): "Currency depreciation is not a reason for worry in itself, but if macroeconomic factors are not good, there may be a cause for concern."

The passage states that the depreciation of an economy's currency is not a concern in itself but should be viewed within a set of macroeconomic factors. The author highlights that the rate at which the depreciation is occurring and the underlying factors causing the change are of concern. They specifically mention factors such as disruptions in supply chains, rising commodity prices, inflationary trends, and outflows of portfolio investments, which are causing problems for the Indian economy.

Therefore, the author acknowledges that currency depreciation can be a cause for concern if it is accompanied by unfavorable macroeconomic factors.

107. Based on the author’s arguments which of the following if true would reduce the decline in value of the rupee? (A) Appointing a new Governor for the RBI who has a better sense of how to control inflationary trends. (B) A steep increase in commodity prices and the continued disruption of supply chains. (C) A reduction in worldwide inflationary trends and the reduction of interest rates in developed country markets. (D) The RBI buying as many dollars as possible from the market.

Answer : Based on the author's arguments, option (C) would reduce the decline in value of the rupee.

The author explains that one of the underlying factors causing the depreciation of the rupee is the worldwide hardening of inflationary trends, which is a result of the disruption of supply chains due to the Russia-Ukraine war. This has led major central banks to raise interest rates, which in turn forces investors to seek the safe haven of the US dollar. As a result, there is a greater demand for dollars, leading to a decline in the value of the rupee.

Therefore, if there is a reduction in worldwide inflationary trends and a reduction of interest rates in developed country markets, it would ease the pressure on the rupee. This would reduce the demand for dollars and potentially stabilize or increase the value of the rupee.

108. Which of the following if true would most weaken the author’s arguments? (A) The Indian economy has been affected by global inflationary trends and the increase of interest rates in developed country markets. (B) Since developed country markets have increased their interest rates global investors have pulled their investments out of other economies and routed them to such developed country markets. (C) As the demand for US dollars increases it is likely the rupee-price of a dollar would increase substantially. (D) The Indian economy and currency are highly protected and have been insulated from the effects of global inflationary trends and the increase of interest rates in developed country markets.

Answer : The statement that would most weaken the author's arguments is (D) "The Indian economy and currency are highly protected and have been insulated from the effects of global inflationary trends and the increase of interest rates in developed country markets." This statement contradicts thetr author's claims about the impact of global inflationary trends and interest rate increases on the Indian economy and currency. If the Indian economy and currency were indeed highly protected and insulated from these effects, then the author's arguments about the depreciation of the Indian rupee and its challenges would be undermined.

109. Which of the followingI if trueI would most strengthen the author’s arguments for why Indian exports may not be able to take advantage of a falling rupee? (A) Economies across the world are witnessing a slowdown and in such economies demand for imports decreases substantially. (B) Economies across the world are booming and there is an increasing demand for Indian exports. (C) A reduction in the volume of exports would be more than offset by the increased value of dollars that Indian exporters would earn. (D) Countries across the world have managed to find ways to insulate themselves from the effects of the Russia-Ukraine war and will need a lot of Indian imports to sustain their new growth models.

Answer : The author argues that Indian exports may not be able to take advantage of a falling rupee. To strengthen this argument, we need to find a statement that supports the idea that the current economic conditions are unfavorable for Indian exports.

Among the given options, option (A) would most strengthen the author's argument. If economies across the world are witnessing a slowdown, it implies that the overall demand for imports would decrease. This would make it more difficult for Indian exporters to find buyers for their products, even with a falling rupee. The decreased demand in the global market would outweigh any advantage gained from the depreciated currency.

110. Based on the author’s arguments which of the following must necessarily be true? (A) The continuing depreciation of the Indian rupee at its current rate coupled with worldwide inflationary trends would result in immense political instability in India and consequently in all of South Asia. (B) If nothing else is done the rise of interest rates in developed country markets coupled with hardening of inflationary trends across the world will result in a fall in the value of the rupee against the dollar.

(C) If inflationary trends continue to harden across the world and if interest rates in developed country markets continue to riseI portfolio investors will increase their investments in IndiaI and this will have a positive impact on India’s foreign exchange reserves. (D) If nothing else is done the rise of interest rates in developed country markets coupled with hardening of inflationary trends across the world will result in a rise in the value of the rupee against the dollar.

Answer : Based on the arguments presented in the passage, (B) If nothing else is done, the rise of interest rates in developed country markets coupled with hardening of inflationary trends across the world will result in a fall in the value of the rupee against the dollar is the statement that must necessarily be true.

INDIAN STATISTICAL SERVICE EXAM SYLLABUS LATEST 2023 Exam

INDIAN STATISTICAL SERVICE EXAM SYLLABUS LATEST 2023 exam

STATISTICS

Paper I

1. Probability:

   Elements of measure theory, Classical definitions and axiomatic approach. Sample space. Class of events and Probability measure. Laws of total and compound probability. Probability of m events out of n. Conditional probability, Bayes’ theorem. Random variables - discrete and continuous. Distribution function. Standard probability distributions - Bernoulli, uniform, binomial, Poisson, geometric, rectangular, exponential, normal, Cauchy, hypergeometric, multinomial, Laplace, negative binomial, beta, gamma, lognormal and compound. Poisson distribution. Joint distributions, conditional distributions, Distributions of functions of random variables. Convergence in distribution, in probability, with probability one and in mean square.

Moments and cumulants. Mathematical expectation and conditional expectation. Characteristic function and moment and probability generating functions Inversion uniqueness and continuity theorems. Borel 0-1 law: Kolmogorov’s 0-1 law. Tchebycheff’s and Kolmogorov’s inequalities.

Laws of large numbers and central limit theorems for independent variables. Conditional expectation and Martingales.

2. Statistical Methods: (a) Collection, compilation and presentation of data, Charts, diagrams and histogram. Frequency distribution. Measures of location, dispersion, skewness and kurtosis.

Bivariate and multivariate data. Association and contingency. Curve fitting and orthogonal polynomials. Bivariate normal distribution. regression-linear, polynomial. Distribution of the correlation coefficient, Partial and multiple correlation, Intraclass correlation, Correlation ratio.(b) Standard errors and large sample test.

Sampling distributions of x,s2, t, chisqure and F; tests of significance based on them, Small sample tests. (c) Non-parametric tests-Goodness of fit, sign, median, run, Wicloxon, Mann-Whitney, Wald-Wolfowitz and Kolmogorov-Smirnov. Rank order statistics-minimum, maximum, range and median. Concept of Asymptotic relative effciency.

3. Numerical Analysis

Interpolation formulae (with remainder terms) due to Lagrange, Newton-Gregory, Newton Divided different, Gauss and Striling. Euler-Maclaurin’s summation formula.

Inverse interpolation.

Numerical integration and differentiation.

Difference equations of the first order.

Linear difference equations with constant coefficients.

STATISTICS-II

1. Linear Models: Theory of linear estimation. Gauss-Markoff setup. Least square estimators. Use of ginverse. analysis of one-way and two way classified data-fixed, mixed and random effect models. Tests for regression coefficients.

2. Estimation: Characteristics of good estimator. Estimation methods of maximum likelihood, minimum chi-square, moments and least squares. Optimal properties of maximum likelihood estimators. Minimum variance unbiased estimators. Minimum variance bound estimators. Cramer-Rao inequality. Bhattacharya bounds. Sufficient estimator. factorisation theorem. Complete statistics. Rao-Blackwell theorem. Confidence interval estimation. Optimum confidence bounds. Resampling, Bootstrap and Jacknife.

3. Hypotheses testing and Statistical Quality Control: (a) Hypothesis testing: Simple and composite hypothesis. Two kinds of error. Critical region. Different types of critical regions and similar regions. Power function. Mostpowerful and uniformly most powerful tests. Neyman-Pearson fundamental lemma. Unbiased test. Randomised test. Likelihood ratio test. Wald’s SPRT, OC and ASN functions. Elements of decision and game theory. b) Statistical Quality Control: Control Charts for variable and attributes. Acceptance Sampling by attributes-Single, double, multiple and sequential Sampling plans; Concepts of AOQL and ATI; Acceptance Sampling by variables-use of Dodge-Romig and other tables.

4. Multivariate Analysis: Multivariate normal distribution. Estimation of mean Vector and covariance matrix. Distribution of Hotelling’s T2-statistic, Mahalanobis’s D2-statistic, and their use in testing. Partial and multiple correlation coefficients in samples from a multivariate normal population. Wishart’s distribution, its reproductive and other properties. Wilk’s criterion. Discriminant function. Principal components. Canonical variates and correlations.

STATISTICS-III

1. Sampling Techniques: Census versus sample survey. Pilot and large scale sample surveys. Role of NSS organisation. Simple random sampling with and without replacement. Stratified sampling and sample allocations. Cos and Variance functions. Ratio and Regression methods of estimation. Sampling with probability proportional to size. Cluster, double, multiphase, multistage and systematic sampling. Interpenetrating sub-sampling. Nonsampling errors.

2. Design and Analysis of Experiments: Principles of design of experiments. Layout and analysis of completely randomised, randomised block and Latin square designs. Factorial experiments and confounding in 2n and 3n experiments. Split-plot and strip-plot designs. Construction and analysis of balanced and partially balanced incomplete block designs. Analysis of covariance. Analysis of non-orthogonal data. analysis of missing and mixed plot data.

3. Economic Statistics: Components of time series. Methods of their determination-variate difference method. Yule-Slutsky effect. Correlogram. Autoregressive models of first and second order. Periodogram analysis.

Index numbers of prices and quantities and their relative merits. Construction of index numbers of wholesale and consumer prices. Income distribution- Pareto and Engel curves. Concentration curve. Methods of estimating national income. Inter-sectoral flows. Inter-industry table. Role of CSO.

4. Econometrics: Theory and analysis of consumer demand-specification and estimation of demand functions. Demand elasticities. Structure and model. Estimation of parameters in single equation model-classical least squares, generalised least-square, heteroscedasticity, serial correlation, multi-collinearity, errors in variable model. Simultaneous equation models-Identification, rank and other conditions. Indirect least squares and two stage least squares. Short-term economic forecasting.

ISS Statistics - IV Syllabus

Statistics - IV paper of Indian Statistical Services is of descriptive type with 80 questions and 200 marks. The duration of the paper is 3 hours. The syllabus has seven sections. You have to choose any two sections and answer. There are two questions in each section.

1. Operations Research and Reliability

Definition and Scope of Operations Research: phases in Operation Research, models and their solutions, decision making under uncertainty and risk, use of different criteria, sensitivity analysis. Transportation and assignment problems. Bellman's principle of optimality, general formulation, computational methods and application of dynamic programming to LPP. Decision-making in the face of competition, two-person games, pure and mixed strategies, existence of solution and uniqueness of value in zero-sum games, finding solutions in 2x2, 2xm and mxn games. Analytical structure of inventory problems, EOQ formula of Harris, its sensitivity analysis and extensions allowing quantity discounts and shortages. Multi-item inventory subject to constraints. Models with random demand, the static risk model. P and Q- systems with constant and random lead times. Queuing models - specification and effectiveness measures. Steady-state solutions of M/M/1 and M/M/c models with associated distributions of queue-length and waiting time. M/G/1 queue and Pollazcek-Khinchine result. Sequencing and scheduling problems. 2-machine n-job and 3-machine n-job problems with identical machine sequence for all jobs. Branch and Bound method for solving travelling salesman problem. Replacement problems - Block and age replacement policies. PERT and CPM - basic concepts. Probability of project completion. Reliability concepts and measures, components and systems, coherent systems, reliability of coherent systems.

Life-distributions, reliability function, hazard rate, common univariate life distributions - exponential, weibull, gamma, etc.. Bivariate exponential distributions. Estimation of parameters and tests in these models. Notions of aging - IFR, IFRA, NBU, DMRL and NBUE classes and their duals. Loss of memory property of the exponential distribution. Reliability estimation based on failure times in variously censored life-tests and in tests with replacement of failed items. Stress-strength reliability and its estimation.

2. Demography and Vital Statistics

Sources of demographic data, census, registration, ad-hoc surveys, Hospital records, Demographic profiles of the Indian Census. Complete life table and its main features, Uses of life table. Makehams and Gompertz curves. National life tables. UN model life tables. Abridged life tables. Stable and stationary populations. Measurement of Fertility: Crude birth rate, General fertility rate, Age specific birth rate, Total fertility rate, Gross reproduction rate, Net reproduction rate. Measurement of Mortality: Crude death rate, Standardized death rates, Age-specific death rates, Infant Mortality rate, Death rate by cause. Internal migration and its measurement, migration models, concept of international migration. Net migration. International and postcensal estimates. Projection method including logistic curve fitting. Decennial population census in India.

3. Survival Analysis and Clinical Trial

Concept of time, order and random censoring, likelihood in the distributions - exponential, gamma, Weibull, lognormal, Pareto, Linear failure rate, inference for these distribution. Life tables, failure rate, mean residual life and their elementary classes and their properties. Estimation of survival function - actuarial estimator, Kaplan - Meier estimator, estimation under the assumption of IFR/DFR, tests of exponentiality against non-parametric classes, total time on test. Two sample problem - Gehan test, log rank test. Semi-parametric regression for failure rate - Cox's proportional hazards model with one and several covariates, rank test for the regression coefficient. Competing risk model, parametric and non-parametric inference for this model.

Introduction to clinical trials: the need and ethics of clinical trials, bias and random error in clinical studies, conduct of clinical trials, overview of Phase I - IV trials, multicenter trials. Data management: data definitions, case report forms, database design, data collection systems for good clinical practice. Design of clinical trials: parallel vs. cross-over designs, cross-sectional vs. longitudinal designs, review of factorial designs, objectives and endpoints of clinical trials, design of Phase I trials, design of single-stage and multi-stage Phase II trials, design and monitoring of phase III trials with sequential stopping, Reporting and analysis: analysis of categorical outcomes from Phase I - III trials, analysis of survival data from clinical trials.

4. Quality Control

Statistical process and product control: Quality of a product, need for quality control, basic concept of process control, process capability and product control, general theory of control charts, causes of variation in quality, control limits, sub grouping summary of out of control criteria, charts for attributes p chart, np chart, c-chart, V chart, charts for variables: R, (−X ,R), (−X ,σ) charts. Basic concepts of process monitoring and control; process capability and process optimization. General theory and review of control charts for attribute and variable data; O.C. and A.R.L. of control charts; control by gauging; moving average and exponentially weighted moving average charts; Cu-Sum charts using V-masks and decision intervals; Economic design of X-bar chart. Acceptance sampling plans for attributes inspection; single and double sampling plans and their properties; plans for inspection by variables for one-sided and two sided specification.

5. Multivariate Analysis

Multivariate normal distribution and its properties. Random sampling from multivariate normal distribution. Maximum likelihood estimators of parameters, distribution of sample mean vector. Wishart matrix - its distribution and properties, distribution of sample generalized variance, null and non-null distribution of multiple correlation coefficients. Hotelling's T2 and its sampling distribution, application in test on mean vector for one and more multivariate normal population and also on equality of components of a mean vector in multivariate normal population. Classification problem: Standards of good classification, procedure of classification based on multivariate normal distributions. Principal components, dimension reduction, canonical variates and canonical correlation - definition, use, estimation and computation.

6. Design and Analysis of Experiments

Analysis of variance for one way and two way classifications, Need for design of experiments, basic principle of experimental design (randomization, replication and local control), complete analysis and layout of completely randomized design, randomized block design and Latin square design, Missing plot technique. Split Plot Design and Strip Plot Design. Factorial experiments and confounding in 2n and 3n experiments. Analysis of covariance. Analysis of non-orthogonal data. Analysis of missing data.

7. Computing with C and R

Basics of C: Components of C language, structure of a C program, Data type, basic data types, Enumerated data types, Derived data types, variable declaration, Local, Global, Parametric variables, Assignment of Variables, Numeric, Character, Real and String constants, Arithmetic, Relation and Logical operators, Assignment operators, Increment and decrement operators, conditional operators, Bitwise operators, Type modifiers and expressions, writing and interpreting expressions, using expressions in statements. Basic input/output. Control statements: conditional statements, if - else, nesting of if - else, else if ladder, switch statements, loops in c, for, while, do - while loops, break, continue, exit ( ), goto and label declarations, One dimensional two dimensional and multidimensional arrays. Storage classes: Automatic variables, External variables, Static variables, Scope and lifetime of declarations. Functions: classification of functions, functions definition and declaration, assessing a function, return statement, parameter passing in functions. Pointers (concept only). Structure: Definition and declaration; structure (initialization) comparison of structure variable; Array of structures: array within structures, structures within structures, passing structures to functions; Unions accessing a union member, union of structure, initialization of a union variable, uses of union. Introduction to linked list, linear linked list, insertion of a node in list, removal of a node from list. Files in C: Defining and opening a file, input - output operation on a file, creating a file, reading a file. Statistics Methods and techniques in R.

ENGLISH

The standard of papers in General English and General Studies will be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University. The standard of papers in the other subjects will be that of the Master degree examination of an Indian University in the relevant disciplines. The candidates will be expected to illustrate theory by facts, and to analyses problems with the help of theory. They will be expected to be particularly conversant with Indian problems in the field(s) of Economics/Statistics. GENERAL ENGLISH Candidates will be required to write an essay in English. Other questions will be designed to test their understanding of English and workman like use of words. Passages will usually be set for summary or precis.

The standard of papers in General English and General Studies will be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University. The standard of papers in the other subjects will be that of the Master degree examination of an Indian University in the relevant disciplines. The candidates will be expected to illustrate theory by facts, and to analyses problems with the help of theory. They will be expected to be particularly conversant with Indian problems in the field(s) of Economics/Statistics.

GENERAL STUDIES General knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on Indian Polity including the political system and the Constitution of India History of India and Geography of a nature which a candidate should be able to answer without special study.

UPSC ISS Exam Answer Key 2022 JUNE

UPSC ISS Exam Answer Key 2022 Highlights Name of Posts : Indian Economic Service and Indian Statistical Service Examination 2022. Exam Date : 24, 25 & 26 June 2022 Answer Key Date : Release Soon Answer Key Date : Update Soon

Indian Economic Services upsc answer 2022 questions and solutions with study materials

Indian Economic Services upsc answer 2022 questions and solutions with study materials

IES GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 1-2022 GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 1 Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 200

Question Paper Specific Instructions Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions:

There are THIRTEEN questions divided under THREE sections.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

In Section B FIVE out of SEVEN questions are to he attempted

In Section C, THREE out of FIVE questions are to be attempted.

Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the sections.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

SECTION A (Compulsory Section)

Q1. Answer all the following seven parts. 5×7=35 (a)Show that the ordinary demand curve will have a greater demand elasticity than the compensated demand curve. 5 (b)Discuss the Lerner Index of monopoly power. 5 (c)Illustrate graphically the effects of advertising on price and output in monopolistic competition. 5 (d)Distinguish between Partial Equilibrium and General Equilibrium Approaches. 5 (e)"The social optimal output occurs where Marginal Social Benefits (MSBS) equal Marginal Social Costs (MSCs)." Examine the statement. 5 (f) Solve the following 2*2 game : B1 B2 A1 2 3 A2 4 -1 Player A

Player B

(g) Show that TSS = ESS + RSS.

SECTION B Answer any five out of the following seven questions: 18×5=90 Q2.Consider the 2-variable linear regression model: Yi = α + βX i; + Ui , i= 1, 2,….., n, where notations have their usual meanings. (a)Estimate the parameters α and β by the OLS method. Also estimate standard errors of these estimates. 10 (b)Describe the testing procedure of B and estimate the 95% confidence interval of B. 08 Q3. (a) Define Indirect Utility Function. Derive the Indirect Utility Function from the Direct Utility Function. 06 (b)Consider the Indirect Utility Function: V = M² 4P1P2 where notations have their usual meanings. Derive the demand functions for x₁ and x2. 06 (c)Consider the utility function and budget equation of a consumer respectively: U = x1x2, M = p1 x1 + p2 x2, where notations have their usual meanings. Derive the expenditure function of the consumer. 06 Q4. (a) Show that a monopolists produces output in the elastic range of demand. 08 Q6. Consider an economy consisting of two consumers, one producer, one ordinary good, one public good and one primary factor. Show that Pareto optimality conditions are not valid for the public good. 18 Q7. (a)Explain the concept of stability and its different types. 6 (b)Explain the stability conditions in a single market both in the Walrasian process and Marshallian process. 12 Q9. (a)Consider the first-order autoregressive scheme in the general regression model. How would you estimate the variance, covariance and autocorrelation coefficient of the disturbance term of the model? 9 (b)Describe the Durbin-Watson (DW) test of autocorrelation. 7 (c)Given a sample of 50 observations and 4 explanatory variables, what can you say about autocorrelation if the computed Durbin-Watson (DW) values are: (i) 1-05, (ii) 2.50 and (iii) 3-97? [DWL= 1·378, DWU = 1.721 at 5% level of significance, n = 50, k = 4] 9

Q10. (a)Graphically explain the Lorenz curve as a measure of income inequality. 5 (b)How would you derive the Gini coefficient from the Lorenz curve ? 10 (c)How would you derive the Gini coefficient from the Pareto law of income distribution ? 10 Q11. (a)"It is not possible to construct social preferences from individual preferences without violating one or more of the five axioms." Examine the statement given by Arrow. 12 (b)Consider the economy with two goods and fixed factor supplies. Assume that the social welfare function defined in commodity space : w = (x₁ + 2) x2 and that society's implicit production function x₁ -2x2 - 1 = 0. 6 (c) Explain ‘Compensation Principle’ and ‘Test Criteria’ formulated by Hicks-Scitovsky. 7

IES GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 2-2022 GENERAL ECONOMICS Paper - II Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Question Paper Specific Instructions Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are SIXTEEN questions divided under THREE sections. The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory. In Section B, SIX out of NINE questions are to be attempted. In Section C, FOUR out of SIX questions are to be attempted. Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the sections. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits, wherever indicated. Failure to adhere to word limite may be penalized. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. SECTION A (Compulsory Section) Q1. Answer the following questions in about 100 words each: 5×6=30 (a) What is the real cash balance effect? 5 (b) Which policy will be effective if the IS Curve is vertical? 5 (c) Illustrate, with a suitable example, how call options can be used for the purpose of speculation. 5 (d) Explain the difference between the concepts of convergence and conditional convergence. 5 (e) Explain the multiple exchange rate system and the advantages associated with it. 5 (f) Explain how the transfer pricing is generally used by a multinational corporation as a method of increasing profit. 5 SECTION B Answer any six out of the following nine questions in about 200 words each: 15*6=90 Q2. How can Quesnay’s Tableau Economique be regarded as a forerunner of modern circular flow of income and expenditure withou government? 15 Q3. Explain the differences among Gross National Product, National Income and Disposable Income. What adjustments have to made in order to calculate Green National Income? 15 Q4. Enumerate the basic differences between Keynesian and Monetarist schools of thought in stimulating demand. 15 Q5. Explain the relationship between finance and economic development in the context of a modern modern - using market economy. 15 Q6.Discuss Rostow’s stage theory of growth and compare it with Lewis’ econoimc development with unlimited supplies of labour. 15 Q7. What is instrumental in Solow’s growth model and what are its limitations? 15 Q8. Explain the relationship between the relative prices of output and relative factor rewards in the light of Stolper- Samuelson theoremn. 15 Q9.Do you agree that an economy cannot simultaneously maintain a fixed exchange rate, free capital movement and an independent monetary policy?Explain 15 Q10. Explain the changes in principles of multilateral trade negotiations over the globe since 1995. 15

IES GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 3 2022 GENERAL ECONOMICS Paper - III Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Question Paper Specific Instructions Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are SIXTEEN questions divided under THREE sections. The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory. In Section B, SIX out of NINE questions are to be attempted. In Section C, FOUR out of SIX questions are to be attempted. Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the sections. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated. Diagrams/Figures, wherever required, shall be drwan in the space required for answering the question itself. Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits, wherever indicated. Failure to adhere to word limits may be penalized. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question sha ll be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off. Answer must be written in ENGLISH only.

SECTION “A” 1.Answer all the following parts in about 100 words each: 5*6=30
1.(a) Differentiate bequest value and existence values with example. 1.(b) What is the rationale behind zero-based budgeting? 1.(c) Clarity why a monopolist does not have a supply curve. 1.(d)Explain Laffer Curve with a diagram. 1.(e)What are India's Green Growth Challenges? 1.(f)The decentralized planning effectively reduces the regional disparities.' Substantiate your views.

SECTION 'B' Answer any six questions out of the following nine in about 200 words each: 15x6=90 2.'Collective actions by local communities can help to control the environmental degradation.' Explain. 15 3.Give an account of the Theory of Contestable Market propounded by W. J. Baumol. 15 4.Using suitable diagram, show that under monopoly, the consumer surplus is lower, but the producer surplus is higher than that of a perfect competitive market. 15 5.'Patents grant monopoly power and hence necessarily reduce the short term and long term welfare of the economy.' Argue in favour or against the statement. 15 6.Distinguish between institutions and organizations. How can they lead to path dependency? 15 7.Explain the doctrine of Environmental Kuznets curve with diagram. How does the sound environmental regulations shift the curve? 15 8.Discuss the significance of the Principle of Ability to pay in the context of justified equality in the payment of tax. 15 9.Elucidate the importance of monetary policy in managing the public debt. 15 10.Would you identify the expenditure to save the white tigers in India as use value?Elaborate. 15

SECTION 'C'

Answer any four questions out of the following six in about 300 words each : 20x4-80 11.Explain different categories of market-based instruments to control environmental pollution.20 12.'Market economy and development planning complement each other." Elaborate your views on this. 20 13.Present the basic arguments and discussions of Kyoto Protocol and Paris Climate Agreements. Identify the status of the US in these agreements. What is carbon credit ?20 14.'The unskilled surplus labour is a source for increasing foreign exchange.'Substantiate. 20 15.Cost-Benefit Analysis has been developed to make expenditure decisions more appropriate.Explain the statement with your comments. 20 16.(a) 'Kinked demand hypothesis is not a theory of pricing, but a tool for explaining why is price sticky in oligopoly. Discuss. (b)A monopolist has two demand functions in two separate markets. They are: P₁ = 80-5Q₁ P₂=170-20Q₂ O Type here to search If the marginal cost of the monopolist is Rs10 and his fixed cost is Rs 50, find the equilibrium prices and quantities in the two markets. How do they change if the fixed cost changes to ₹100 ? 8+12=20 IES INDIAN ECONOMY PAPER 4 2022

SECTION 'A'

1. Answer all six parts from this section. Answer to each should be in about 100 words. 5x6-30 1.(a)Write down the key recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India. 5 1.(b)What are the basic approaches of financial sector reforms in India? 5 1.(c)Discuss how e-NAM and derivatives market linkages can benefit farmers in India. 5 1.(d)Discuss the role of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in India in the context of inflation targeting. 5 1.(e)Write down the main features of foreign trade policy (2015-20) of India. 5 1.(f)Analyse the trends in 'Fuel and Power' inflation in India based on WPI. 5

SECTION 'B' Answer any six questions from this section. Answer to each should be in about 200 words. 15x6-90

2. "India has a worse underemployment problem than unemployment." Do you agree? Give reasons. 15 3.Analyse the performance of commodity futures markets in India. Critically evaluate the working of Forward Markets Commission (FMC) in India. 15 4.Describe the measures taken by the Government of India to tackle the problem of black money. To what extent these measures are successful in addressing the problem? 15 5.What is competition policy? Why do we need a national competition policy (NCP)? How does NCP affect economic growth in India? 15 6.Discuss the opportunities and challenges of India's insurance sector. How the insurance sector reforms can resolve these challenges ? 15 7.Analyse the effects of tariff protections on domestic industries in India. Evaluate India's trade openness and tariff policy since the 1991 reforms. 15 8.Explain the rationale for various monetary policy measures undertaken by the RBI during COVID-19 Pandemic in India. 15 9.How is core inflation different from CPI headline inflation ? What is the rationale in measuring core inflation ? Explain. 15
3. What is the Aspirational Districts Programme of the Government of India? Discuss how it is a manifestation of the inclusive development agenda. 15

SECTION 'C' Answer any four questions from this section. Answer to each should be in about 300 words. 20×4=80 11.(a)Differentiate between the strategies for self-reliance through protection and self-reliance through globalisation. 10 11.(b)Evaluate Public Expenditure Management Policy as an instrument of fiscal reforms in India. 10 12 .What are the basic principles of fiscal management in India? Discuss the role of FRBM rules (2004) to improve the fiscal health at sub-national level. 20 13.(a)Critically examine whether growing population is the cause of poverty or poverty is the main cause of population growth in India. 10 13.(b)Analyse the trend in consumption inequality in India since the early 1990s. 10 14.Examine the complementarity between technological change and institutional change in enhancing agricultural growth in India. Suggest some measures for adoption of technologies for sustainable farming system in India. 20 15.Discuss the characteristic features of internal migration in India. Explain how urbanisation is linked with migration. What are the major determinants of rural to urban migration in large agglomerations in India? 20 16.Analyse the complementarity, difference and integration between Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI). "FDI is necessary but not sufficient condition for economic growth in India". Critically examine. 20

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are SIXTEEN questions divided under THREE Sections.

The ONLY question in Section 'A' is compulsory.

In Section 'B', SIX out of NINE questions are to be attempted.

In Section 'C', FOUR out of SIX questions are to be attempted.

Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the Sections.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits, wherever indicated. Failure to adhere to word limits may be penalized.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank left blank in the Question-cum-answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

IES INDIAN ECONOMIC SERVICE 2022 QUESTION PAPER 1 2 3 4 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION

IES INDIAN ECONOMIC SERVICE 2022 QUESTION PAPER 1 2 3 4 WITH COMPLETE SOLUTION

IES GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 1-2022 GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 1 Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Question Paper Specific Instructions Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions:

There are THIRTEEN questions divided under THREE sections.

The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory.

In Section B FIVE out of SEVEN questions are to he attempted

In Section C, THREE out of FIVE questions are to be attempted.

Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the sections.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off.

Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

SECTION A (Compulsory Section)

Q1. Answer all the following seven parts. 5×7=35 (a)Show that the ordinary demand curve will have a greater demand elasticity than the compensated demand curve. 5 (b)Discuss the Lerner Index of monopoly power. 5 (c)Illustrate graphically the effects of advertising on price and output in monopolistic competition. 5 (d)Distinguish between Partial Equilibrium and General Equilibrium Approaches. 5 (e)"The social optimal output occurs where Marginal Social Benefits (MSBS) equal Marginal Social Costs (MSCs)." Examine the statement. 5 (f) Solve the following 2*2 game :

B1 B2 A1 2 3 A2 4 -1 Player A

Player B

(g) Show that TSS = ESS + RSS.

SECTION B Answer any five out of the following seven questions: 18×5=90 Q2.Consider the 2-variable linear regression model: Yi = α + βX i; + Ui , i= 1, 2,….., n, where notations have their usual meanings. (a)Estimate the parameters α and β by the OLS method. Also estimate standard errors of these estimates. 10 (b)Describe the testing procedure of B and estimate the 95% confidence interval of B. 08 Q3. (a) Define Indirect Utility Function. Derive the Indirect Utility Function from the Direct Utility Function. 06 (b)Consider the Indirect Utility Function: V = M² 4P1P2 where notations have their usual meanings. Derive the demand functions for x₁ and x2. 06 (c)Consider the utility function and budget equation of a consumer respectively: U = x1x2, M = p1 x1 + p2 x2, where notations have their usual meanings. Derive the expenditure function of the consumer. 06 Q4. (a) Show that a monopolists produces output in the elastic range of demand. 08 Q6. Consider an economy consisting of two consumers, one producer, one ordinary good, one public good and one primary factor. Show that Pareto optimality conditions are not valid for the public good. 18 Q7. (a)Explain the concept of stability and its different types. 6 (b)Explain the stability conditions in a single market both in the Walrasian process and Marshallian process. 12 Q9. (a)Consider the first-order autoregressive scheme in the general regression model. How would you estimate the variance, covariance and autocorrelation coefficient of the disturbance term of the model? 9 (b)Describe the Durbin-Watson (DW) test of autocorrelation. 7 (c)Given a sample of 50 observations and 4 explanatory variables, what can you say about autocorrelation if the computed Durbin-Watson (DW) values are: (i) 1-05, (ii) 2.50 and (iii) 3-97? [DWL= 1·378, DWU = 1.721 at 5% level of significance, n = 50, k = 4] 9

Q10. (a)Graphically explain the Lorenz curve as a measure of income inequality. 5 (b)How would you derive the Gini coefficient from the Lorenz curve ? 10 (c)How would you derive the Gini coefficient from the Pareto law of income distribution ? 10 Q11. (a)"It is not possible to construct social preferences from individual preferences without violating one or more of the five axioms." Examine the statement given by Arrow. 12 (b)Consider the economy with two goods and fixed factor supplies. Assume that the social welfare function defined in commodity space : w = (x₁ + 2) x2 and that society's implicit production function x₁ -2x2 - 1 = 0. 6 (c) Explain ‘Compensation Principle’ and ‘Test Criteria’ formulated by Hicks-Scitovsky. 7

IES GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 2-2022 GENERAL ECONOMICS Paper - II Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Question Paper Specific Instructions Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are SIXTEEN questions divided under THREE sections. The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory. In Section B, SIX out of NINE questions are to be attempted. In Section C, FOUR out of SIX questions are to be attempted. Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the sections. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits, wherever indicated. Failure to adhere to word limite may be penalized. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only. SECTION A (Compulsory Section) Q1. Answer the following questions in about 100 words each: 5×6=30 (a) What is the real cash balance effect? 5 (b) Which policy will be effective if the IS Curve is vertical? 5 (c) Illustrate, with a suitable example, how call options can be used for the purpose of speculation. 5 (d) Explain the difference between the concepts of convergence and conditional convergence. 5 (e) Explain the multiple exchange rate system and the advantages associated with it. 5 (f) Explain how the transfer pricing is generally used by a multinational corporation as a method of increasing profit. 5 SECTION B Answer any six out of the following nine questions in about 200 words each: 15*6=90 Q2. How can Quesnay’s Tableau Economique be regarded as a forerunner of modern circular flow of income and expenditure withou government? 15 Q3. Explain the differences among Gross National Product, National Income and Disposable Income. What adjustments have to made in order to calculate Green National Income? 15 Q4. Enumerate the basic differences between Keynesian and Monetarist schools of thought in stimulating demand. 15 Q5. Explain the relationship between finance and economic development in the context of a modern modern - using market economy. 15 Q6.Discuss Rostow’s stage theory of growth and compare it with Lewis’ econoimc development with unlimited supplies of labour. 15 Q7. What is instrumental in Solow’s growth model and what are its limitations? 15 Q8. Explain the relationship between the relative prices of output and relative factor rewards in the light of Stolper- Samuelson theoremn. 15 Q9.Do you agree that an economy cannot simultaneously maintain a fixed exchange rate, free capital movement and an independent monetary policy?Explain 15 Q10. Explain the changes in principles of multilateral trade negotiations over the globe since 1995. 15

IES GENERAL ECONOMICS PAPER 3 2022 GENERAL ECONOMICS Paper - III Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 200 Question Paper Specific Instructions Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions: There are SIXTEEN questions divided under THREE sections. The ONLY question in Section A is compulsory. In Section B, SIX out of NINE questions are to be attempted. In Section C, FOUR out of SIX questions are to be attempted. Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the sections. The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it. Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly indicated. Diagrams/Figures, wherever required, shall be drwan in the space required for answering the question itself. Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations have their usual standard meanings. Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits, wherever indicated. Failure to adhere to word limits may be penalized. Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question sha ll be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank in the Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off. Answer must be written in ENGLISH only.

SECTION “A” 1.Answer all the following parts in about 100 words each: 5*6=30
1.(a) Differentiate bequest value and existence values with example. 1.(b) What is the rationale behind zero-based budgeting? 1.(c) Clarity why a monopolist does not have a supply curve. 1.(d)Explain Laffer Curve with a diagram. 1.(e)What are India's Green Growth Challenges? 1.(f)The decentralized planning effectively reduces the regional disparities.' Substantiate your views.

SECTION 'B' Answer any six questions out of the following nine in about 200 words each: 15x6=90 2.'Collective actions by local communities can help to control the environmental degradation.' Explain. 15 3.Give an account of the Theory of Contestable Market propounded by W. J. Baumol. 15 4.Using suitable diagram, show that under monopoly, the consumer surplus is lower, but the producer surplus is higher than that of a perfect competitive market. 15 5.'Patents grant monopoly power and hence necessarily reduce the short term and long term welfare of the economy.' Argue in favour or against the statement. 15 6.Distinguish between institutions and organizations. How can they lead to path dependency? 15 7.Explain the doctrine of Environmental Kuznets curve with diagram. How does the sound environmental regulations shift the curve? 15 8.Discuss the significance of the Principle of Ability to pay in the context of justified equality in the payment of tax. 15 9.Elucidate the importance of monetary policy in managing the public debt. 15 10.Would you identify the expenditure to save the white tigers in India as use value?Elaborate. 15

SECTION 'C'

Answer any four questions out of the following six in about 300 words each : 20x4-80 11.Explain different categories of market-based instruments to control environmental pollution.20 12.'Market economy and development planning complement each other." Elaborate your views on this. 20 13.Present the basic arguments and discussions of Kyoto Protocol and Paris Climate Agreements. Identify the status of the US in these agreements. What is carbon credit ?20 14.'The unskilled surplus labour is a source for increasing foreign exchange.'Substantiate. 20 15.Cost-Benefit Analysis has been developed to make expenditure decisions more appropriate.Explain the statement with your comments. 20 16.(a) 'Kinked demand hypothesis is not a theory of pricing, but a tool for explaining why is price sticky in oligopoly. Discuss. (b)A monopolist has two demand functions in two separate markets. They are: P₁ = 80-5Q₁ P₂=170-20Q₂ O Type here to search If the marginal cost of the monopolist is Rs10 and his fixed cost is Rs 50, find the equilibrium prices and quantities in the two markets. How do they change if the fixed cost changes to ₹100 ? 8+12=20 IES INDIAN ECONOMY PAPER 4 2022

SECTION 'A'

1. Answer all six parts from this section. Answer to each should be in about 100 words. 5x6-30 1.(a)Write down the key recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India. 5 1.(b)What are the basic approaches of financial sector reforms in India? 5 1.(c)Discuss how e-NAM and derivatives market linkages can benefit farmers in India. 5 1.(d)Discuss the role of Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) in India in the context of inflation targeting. 5 1.(e)Write down the main features of foreign trade policy (2015-20) of India. 5 1.(f)Analyse the trends in 'Fuel and Power' inflation in India based on WPI. 5

SECTION 'B' Answer any six questions from this section. Answer to each should be in about 200 words. 15x6-90

2. "India has a worse underemployment problem than unemployment." Do you agree? Give reasons. 15 3.Analyse the performance of commodity futures markets in India. Critically evaluate the working of Forward Markets Commission (FMC) in India. 15 4.Describe the measures taken by the Government of India to tackle the problem of black money. To what extent these measures are successful in addressing the problem? 15 5.What is competition policy? Why do we need a national competition policy (NCP)? How does NCP affect economic growth in India? 15 6.Discuss the opportunities and challenges of India's insurance sector. How the insurance sector reforms can resolve these challenges ? 15 7.Analyse the effects of tariff protections on domestic industries in India. Evaluate India's trade openness and tariff policy since the 1991 reforms. 15 8.Explain the rationale for various monetary policy measures undertaken by the RBI during COVID-19 Pandemic in India. 15 9.How is core inflation different from CPI headline inflation ? What is the rationale in measuring core inflation ? Explain. 15
3. What is the Aspirational Districts Programme of the Government of India? Discuss how it is a manifestation of the inclusive development agenda. 15

SECTION 'C' Answer any four questions from this section. Answer to each should be in about 300 words. 20×4=80 11.(a)Differentiate between the strategies for self-reliance through protection and self-reliance through globalisation. 10 11.(b)Evaluate Public Expenditure Management Policy as an instrument of fiscal reforms in India. 10 12 .What are the basic principles of fiscal management in India? Discuss the role of FRBM rules (2004) to improve the fiscal health at sub-national level. 20 13.(a)Critically examine whether growing population is the cause of poverty or poverty is the main cause of population growth in India. 10 13.(b)Analyse the trend in consumption inequality in India since the early 1990s. 10 14.Examine the complementarity between technological change and institutional change in enhancing agricultural growth in India. Suggest some measures for adoption of technologies for sustainable farming system in India. 20 15.Discuss the characteristic features of internal migration in India. Explain how urbanisation is linked with migration. What are the major determinants of rural to urban migration in large agglomerations in India? 20 16.Analyse the complementarity, difference and integration between Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI). "FDI is necessary but not sufficient condition for economic growth in India". Critically examine. 20

QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS

Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.

There are SIXTEEN questions divided under THREE Sections.

The ONLY question in Section 'A' is compulsory.

In Section 'B', SIX out of NINE questions are to be attempted.

In Section 'C', FOUR out of SIX questions are to be attempted.

Candidates should attempt questions/parts as per the instructions given in the Sections.

The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.

Candidates are required to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits, wherever indicated. Failure to adhere to word limits may be penalized.

Attempts of questions shall be counted in sequential order. Unless struck off, attempt of a question shall be counted even if attempted partly.

Any page or portion of the page left blank left blank in the Question-cum-answer (QCA) Booklet must be clearly struck off. Answers must be written in ENGLISH only.

INDIAN STATISTICAL SERVICE

ISS 2021 Solution paper iv ques 1 INDIAN STATISTICAL SERVICE 18 JULY SEQUENCING PROBLEM

ISS 2021 PAPER 4 (IV) Solution section A Operations Research and Reliability with analysis

Demography & vital statistics ISS 2021 section B solution paper 4 discussion India statistical service

ISS 2021 solution 17 18 19 20 21 paper 1 indian statistical service answer iss 2022 preparation

ISS 2021 solution 17 18 19 20 21 paper 1 indian statistical service answer iss 2022 preparation

ISS 2021 solution 17 18 19 20 21 paper 1 indian statistical service answer iss 2022 preparation

ISS 2021 solution 17 18 19 20 21 paper 1 indian statistical service answer iss 2022 preparation

ISS 2021 solution 17 18 19 20 21 paper 1 indian statistical service answer iss 2022 preparation

ISS 2021 solution 17 18 19 20 21 paper 1 indian statistical service answer iss 2022 preparation

ISS 2021 solution 17 18 19 20 21 paper 1 indian statistical service answer iss 2022 preparation